Feature Question

(OBQ07-74) A 26-year-old male presents after a motor vehicle accident. Work-up reveals a closed left femoral shaft fracture, and an ipsilateral posterior wall fracture. He undergoes intramedullary nailing of the femur, and open reduction internal fixation of the posterior wall. He is treated with 25 mg of indomethacin three times daily for 6 weeks following an initial dose on the evening of surgery for heterotopic ossification prophylaxis. Which of the following is true regarding this post-operative treatment protocol? REVIEW TOPIC

1. It is associated with an increased rate of femoral shaft nonunion
2. It has no affect on the healing time of the posterior wall fracture
3. It is associated with a faster time to union
4. Indomethacin is superior to radiation treatment in the prevention of heterotopic ossification
5. There is a decreased rate of revision surgery needed when indomethacin is administered post-operatively